Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 01.07.2025 11:53

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Review of American Airlines' Flagship Suite Preferred on the inaugural flight - The Points Guy

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Since NATO is badly losing in Ukraine to the Russian forces, should NATO soldiers and commanders find a new job given their incompetence? Do they expect pushing different versions of the same disinformation every few months to help them win?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Geert Wilders: Dutch government collapses as far-right leader exits coalition - BBC

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Read also: